Mordechai's Refusal to Bow/1

Mordechai's Refusal to Bow

Introduction

Why Refuse?

The entire story of Purim revolves around one crucial decision of Mordechai:

EN/HEע/E

(ב) וְכׇל עַבְדֵי הַמֶּלֶךְ אֲשֶׁר בְּשַׁעַר הַמֶּלֶךְ כֹּרְעִים וּמִשְׁתַּחֲוִים לְהָמָן כִּי כֵן צִוָּה לוֹ הַמֶּלֶךְ וּמׇרְדֳּכַי לֹא יִכְרַע וְלֹא יִשְׁתַּחֲוֶה.... (ה) וַיַּרְא הָמָן כִּי אֵין מׇרְדֳּכַי כֹּרֵעַ וּמִשְׁתַּחֲוֶה לוֹ וַיִּמָּלֵא הָמָן חֵמָה. (ו) וַיִּבֶז בְּעֵינָיו לִשְׁלֹחַ יָד בְּמׇרְדֳּכַי לְבַדּוֹ כִּי הִגִּידוּ לוֹ אֶת עַם מׇרְדֳּכָי וַיְבַקֵּשׁ הָמָן לְהַשְׁמִיד אֶת כׇּל הַיְּהוּדִים אֲשֶׁר בְּכׇל מַלְכוּת אֲחַשְׁוֵרוֹשׁ עַם מׇרְדֳּכָי. 

(2)

Mordechai refuses to bow to Haman leading the viceroy to try and annihilate the entire nation.  Given the centrality of the fact to the plot line, the Megillah somewhat surprising never explicitly explains either Haman or Mordechai's motives.¹  Why did Haman desire that people bow to him?²  Why did Mordechai refuse?³ 

A Bad Choice?

Mordechai's refusal single handedly led to the near annihilation of his people, making one ask the obvious - was his action justified?  There seems to be no prohibition against bowing to people as evidenced by the many Biblical characters (including Moshe) who do so.⁴  What, then, could have been so vital to Mordechai to prompt him to endanger an entire nation? As Ibn Ezra writes:

EN/HEע/E

והנה יש לשאול למה הכניס מרדכי עצמו בסכנה גם הכניס כל ישראל היה ראוי שידבר לאסתר ותסירנו משער המלך ולא יכעיס את המן אחר שראה שהשעה משחקת לו!

And

Other Questions

• "כִּי הִגִּיד לָהֶם אֲשֶׁר הוּא יְהוּדִי" – Do these words provide the reason for Mordechai's refusal to bow or do they only point to the antisemitism of the servants who informed on him to Haman?
• "לֹא יִכְרַע וְלֹא יִשְׁתַּחֲוֶה" – Is there any significance to the difference between kneeling and bowing?  Are both used as a means to honor another or is kneeling specifically an act of worship? Are they equally permitted or prohibited?
• "כׇל עַבְדֵי הַמֶּלֶךְ אֲשֶׁר בְּשַׁעַר הַמֶּלֶךְ " – Who was included in the command to prostrate themselves, only members of the king's court or the entire populace?  What might that teach regarding either  Haman or Mordechai's motives?
• Haman's edict – Did Mordechai anticipate what the consequences of his actions might be?⁵  After the fact, was he cognizant that it was his refusal that led Haman to his decision of destruction, or did he never connect the two issues?

¹ See below that though the verse states, "כִּי הִגִּיד לָהֶם אֲשֶׁר הוּא יְהוּדִי" it is not clear if this is meant to explain Mordechai's motives or not.

² It is also possible that this was not even Haman's idea at all, but only that of the king, as the verse states "כִּי כֵן צִוָּה לוֹ הַמֶּלֶךְ".

³ The motives of the two need not be identical. It is possible that Mordechai's motives were religious in nature while Haman's were political or vice versa.

⁴ See R. Saadia Gaon, who questions, "Why did Mordecai refrain from bowing down before Haman? Was he better than the patriarchs, some of whom bowed down to others?"

⁵ Did he think that he was only endangering himself or had he reason to believe that Haman might seek vengeance on the whole nation?  Or, did he think that his stance should not have put anyone's life in danger?