Difference between revisions of "Shabbat Table Topics – Parashat Shofetim/0/en"
m |
m |
||
| Line 22: | Line 22: | ||
</category> | </category> | ||
<category>Prophetic Autonomy | <category>Prophetic Autonomy | ||
| − | <p>How much independence does a prophet have?  Can they ever speak or act on their own initiative, or must all their deeds be Divinely directed? | + | <p>How much independence does a prophet have?  Can they ever speak or act on their own initiative, or must all their deeds be Divinely directed? Our parashah suggests that a prophet may never invoke Hashem's name if not commanded to do so, yet there are several instances in Tanakh where Moshe does in fact speak in Hashem's name, even though there is no record of a prior Divine directive.<fn>For example, Moshe seemingly on his own announce the plagues of locusts and first-borns, directs the Levites to kill worshipers of the Golden Calf, and commands Aharon regarding certain sacrificial procedures.  In each case he invokes the name of Hashem, yet in none of them had the text previously recorded a directive of Hashem.</fn></p> |
| − | |||
<ul> | <ul> | ||
<li>How are such cases to be understood?  Should the reader assume that despite the textual silence, a Divine directive had indeed been issued?  Or, do prophets actually have the ability to not only speak and act on their own initiative, but even to attribute that action to Hashem?  Are all prophets equal in this regard, or might Moshe be a unique?</li> | <li>How are such cases to be understood?  Should the reader assume that despite the textual silence, a Divine directive had indeed been issued?  Or, do prophets actually have the ability to not only speak and act on their own initiative, but even to attribute that action to Hashem?  Are all prophets equal in this regard, or might Moshe be a unique?</li> | ||
Version as of 22:01, 17 August 2017
Shabbat Table Topics – Parashat Shofetim
Calling for Peace
Many modern readers wonder about the directive to annihilate the nations of Canaan. Was there really no possibility for peaceful co-existence? Medieval commentators also debated the issue, with Rashi maintaining that it was prohibited to call for peace and war was inevitable, and Radak claiming that the Israelites were obligated to offer terms of peace before waging war against the Canaanites.
- How would each side of the debate read the verses of Devarim 20? What other verses could support each position? How does the story of the Gibeonites' deceit in Sefer Yehoshua shed light on the issue?
- According to Rashi, the reason for the decree of obliteration is religious in nature, lest the nations sway Israel towards idolatry. Sometimes a zero-tolerance policy is necessary. Do you agree? In what circumstances are compromises not an option?
- According to Radak, what would have happened had the nations actually surrendered to Israel? Could the land have sustained both populations? How might the course of our history have changed? For more, see Calling for Peace in the Conquest of Canaan.
Determining Truth
We sometimes look back to the Biblical period and wonder how a nation who lived in a prophetic age and merited to hear the Divine word could still mess up so badly. With access to Hashem's will, and with prophets to tell you for certain what was right and wrong, was it not much easier to be a good person? Why did the people so often not heed the prophetic instructions?
- It is possible that part of the problem was the difficulty in determining who to listen to. When true and false prophets both claimed to speak in the name of God, yet said contradictory things, how was a layman to know who was Hashem's true messenger?
- Devarim 18 sets litmus test: if a prophet's predictions do not materialize, he must be a fraud. At first glance this sounds straightforward. Yet, the verse implies that all prophecies must materialize - is this true? What do Yirmeyahu 18, Yirmeyahu 28 and the story of Yonah and Nineveh suggest? Does not teshuvah have the ability to overturn Divine decrees? If so, how is one to determine who is a true or false prophet?
- See Distinguishing Between True and False Prophets for several approaches.
Prophetic Autonomy
How much independence does a prophet have? Can they ever speak or act on their own initiative, or must all their deeds be Divinely directed? Our parashah suggests that a prophet may never invoke Hashem's name if not commanded to do so, yet there are several instances in Tanakh where Moshe does in fact speak in Hashem's name, even though there is no record of a prior Divine directive.1
- How are such cases to be understood? Should the reader assume that despite the textual silence, a Divine directive had indeed been issued? Or, do prophets actually have the ability to not only speak and act on their own initiative, but even to attribute that action to Hashem? Are all prophets equal in this regard, or might Moshe be a unique?
- If prophets do have a certain degree of autonomy, is it possible for them to err?
- Which model of prophet is on a higher level: one who who simply follows Divine orders, or one who takes initiatives without prior consultation with Hashem? Contrast the opinions of R"Y Albo and Abarbanel and debate the issue at your Shabbat table.
See Invoking Hashem's Name Without Explicit Divine Sanction and Prophetic Actions Without Explicit Divine Sanction for elaboration.
